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Exodus 6:2-9:35 ● Isaiah 66:1-24 (Shabbat Rosh Chodesh) ● Matthew 5:17-26

 This week's edition of The Set Table contains:

QUESTIONS AND COMMENTARY ON PARASHAT VA'ERA
CHAYYEI YESHUA - A Devotional Commentary on the Besora Reading
SUMMARY OF QUESTIONS

NEXT WEEK'S
READINGS 

QUESTIONS AND COMMENTARY FOR PARASHAT VA'ERA

1. Why was the first sign Moses performed turning the water of Egypt into blood? How is this sign connected with the first miracle that Yeshua performs in Yochannan 2? 

Rabbi Jason Sobel

Our Sages offer many explanations as to why the first plague brought upon the Egyptians was dam (blood). The Nile River made Egypt a very fertile and prosperous nation. Since the Nile was the source of their sustenance, the Egyptians worshipped it as a deity. They personified the Nile as the god Hapi, to whom they offered sacrifices. The Egyptians also believed that Pharaoh, as god incarnate, was responsible for controlling and maintaining nature's harmony. Therefore the Midrashist expounds,

Why were the ‘waters' first smitten, and with blood? Because Pharaoh and the Egyptians worshipped the Nile, and God said: ‘I will smite their god first and then his people,' just as the common saying goes: ‘I will smite the gods and their priests will tremble.' For so it says: The Lord will punish the host of the high heaven above; and after that, and the kings of the earth upon the earth below (Isaiah 24:21). And the fish that are in the river shall die (8:18). 

All ten signs (and the first in particular) were meant to discredit the false gods of Egypt and Pharaoh's fallacious claim to govern creation. On the positive side, they were meant to convince all Egypt that the God of Israel really existed, that God had a special covenantal relationship with the children of Israel, and that God is the Creator and King of all.

Another reason for turning the Nile into blood was to punish the Egyptians who had shed the blood of defenseless Jewish children by throwing them into the river (Exodus 1:22). Thus, the blood of the slaughtered innocent babies cried out for justice from the depths of the Nile and bore witness against Egypt. Afflicting the Egyptians through this plague was particularly fitting for it follows the principal of mida keneged mida (measure for measure). Based on both explanations, we learn that that the ten signs that God brought upon Egypt where both punitive and redemptive. By punishing Egypt for their transgression, God gave them the opportunity to turn from their transgressions and be spared like Nineveh. 

According to Deuteronomy 18:18, God would raise up a prophet like Moses from Israel to be their final redeemer. But what made Moses unique as a prophet?  The Torah tells one key aspect was "all those miraculous signs and wonders the LORD sent him to do in Egypt (Deuteronomy 34:11)." It only makes sense that the first mosaic-like sign that Yeshua performed involved the transformation of water into wine at the wedding in Cana. Why did he specifically turn the water into wine and not blood? Wine is symbolic of the joy and redemption that Messiah King will bring about in Messianic age.  As we read in the messianic promise contained in Genesis 49:9-12,

The scepter will not depart from Judah, nor the ruler's staff from between his feet, until he comes to whom it belongs [Shiloh] and the obedience of the nations is his.  He will tether his donkey to a vine, his colt to the choicest branch; he will wash his garments in wine, his robes in the blood of grapes. His eyes will be darker than wine, his teeth whiter than milk. 

Thus, Yeshua, as the prophet like Moses, publicly declared his messiahship by turning the water into wine and not blood because he did not come to bring death and judgment. Rather, he came that we might have abundant life.
 

2. What does it mean for God to promise to redeem Israel from bondage in Egypt "with an outstretched arm" (Exodus 6:6)?

Rabbi Jonathan Kaplan

At the beginning of this week's parasha, God reaffirms the divine promise to be Israel's God, redeem them from bondage, and bring them into the promised land (Exodus 6:8). In this midst of this reaffirmation of the promise, God commands Moses to tell the people of Israel: 

I am the LORD. I will bring you out from the labors of the Egyptians. I will deliver you from their bondage. I will redeem you with an outstretched arm and great judgments. I will take you to be for me a people and I will be your God so that you shall know that I am the LORD your God who freed you from the labors of the Egyptians.

Exodus 6:6-7

These verses are central to the retelling of God's deliverance of us from Egypt every year during Passover. In fact they serve as the scriptural basis for the four cups of wine (plus the cup of Elijah) of which we partake during the seder (see b. Pesachim 99b et al). The meaning of these verses is both clear and obscure. For instance, what does God mean when he promises to redeem us "with an outstretched arm?" What does "an outstretched arm" signify? 

Though the phrase is oft repeated in the Torah when describing God's redemption of Israel from bondage in Egypt (cf. Deuteronomy 4:34; 5:15; 7:19; 9:29; 11:2; 26:8), there is little explication in the Bible and in later commentaries on what "an outstretched arm" is. There are hints of three ideas for the meaning of this phrase in various rabbinic and medieval commentaries.

The first suggestion is offered by Rashi. In his commentary to Deuteronomy 7:19, he quotes a tradition from Sifre Numbers (Shelach 115) which identifies the outstretched arm as "the sword of the destruction of the first born." In other words, God's outstretched arm signifies God's work of punishing the Egyptians through "great judgments" (Exodus 6:6) culminating in the last and worst plague, the death of the firstborn. The tradition of the "outstretched arm" signifying judgment also appears in b. Rosh haShana 32b in a discussion of the verses which signify punishment to be read with the blowing of the shofar

Ibn Ezra suggests another interpretation of the "outstretched arm" in his comments on Exodus 6:6; it is "outstretched from heaven to earth." His statement is subtle but important. Not only does the "outstretched arm" represent God's chastising judgment but also demonstrates God's condescension to enter Israel's life again by bridging the gap between heaven (the divine realm) and earth (the human realm). God also engages in such condescension in the Incarnation (John 1 et al).

A third interpretation of the "outstretched arm" comes to us from Nachmanides who states "the arm will be stretched out over them until he brings them out [of Egypt]." In other words, God's arm is also an arm which provides protection and shelter for Israel as she is brought out of bondage. 

Thus when God promises to redeem Israel from bondage "with an outstretched arm," it is a promise of redemption worked through judgment against the Egyptians, God's presence in the midst of that redemption, and God's protection throughout the entirety of that act of redemption.


Dr. Noel Rabinowitz

Matthew 5:17-26 - Fulfilling the Law

In Matthew 5:17-48 we encounter what is arguably one of the most controversial passages in the entire Brit Chadasha. In this passage Yeshua declares that he has come to fulfill the Torah and not to abolish it (v. 17). What precisely does he mean by this statement? What does Yeshua mean when he states that he has come "to fulfill the Law?" This is, as they say, the 64,000 dollar question! There are, unfortunately, many sincere and well meaning Christians who find it simply inconceivable to believe that Yeshua is actually making a positive statement about the Torah. Although the text actually states "I have come not to abolish but to fulfill," many individuals read, "I have come not to abolish, but to abolish ..." Of course, I am being facetious. Nevertheless, it does make my point that people are sometimes unwilling to allow the text to speak for itself. So, once more, let us ask what this problematic passage means. 

In Matthew 5:17-48, Matthew presents Yeshua's authoritative interpretation of the Torah. Scholars usually refer to this section of Matthew's Besora as the Sermon on the Mount. Matthew has included this passage in his Besora to confirm to his readers that Yeshua is King-Messiah. Like other groups within the world of Second Temple Judaism, Matthew shared the conviction that entrance into the Kingdom of Heaven was linked to whose interpretation of Torah one followed. In other words, if a person did not recognize the Messiah's authoritative teaching, they risked exclusion from the Kingdom of Heaven.

Matthew 5:17-20 thus establishes that Yeshua alone is the authoritative interpreter of the Torah. In the remainder of this passage (vv. 21-48), he presents six examples or case studies that clarify and demonstrate his authoritative interpretation of the Torah and reveal the higher righteousness required of his disciples. All of this leads us back to Yeshua's radical statement in verse 17 that he came not to abolish, but to fulfill the Torah. 

Verse 17 is actually the interpretive key that unlocks the meaning of this entire unit. It is critical therefore that we understand the contrast being made between "abolish" and "fulfill." Our interpretation of the text hinges upon correctly understanding the contrast. The Greek verb kataluo means to abolish or annul. Once again, however, what precisely does it mean to abolish the Torah and the Prophets? In Jewish thought to abolish the Torah was "to cast off its yoke, treating God's law as void." The rabbis spoke of bearing "the yoke of the kingdom of heaven," and "the yoke of the commandments." Thus to abolish the Torah was to cease from obeying and keeping it. To abolish the Torah was to nullify its authority. From Matthew's perspective, this is antithetical to the reason for which Yeshua has come.

To the contrary, Yeshua states that he has come "to fulfill" the Law. Scholars, offering a bewildering number of suggestions, disagree as to precisely what the Greek verb pleroo means in this context. Suggestions range from saying that Yeshua fulfills the Torah "by doing it perfectly" to saying that he replaces its command with higher ethical demand to which the Torah merely pointed. The list is endless!

It's with great caution, therefore, that I offer the following suggestion. I believe that Matthew presents Yeshua as the authoritative interpreter of the Torah who affirms its authority while at the same time revealing its true transcendent meaning. In other words, He makes explicit what is implicit already. For example, Exodus 20:14 and Deuteronomy 5:18 prohibit the physical act of adultery. Yeshua declares that the prohibition of adultery implicitly prohibits the lust which leads to the act of adultery! 

In Matthew 5:20 Yeshua informs his disciples that most possess a righteousness that exceeds the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees. In effect, Yeshua is giving these individuals a bit of a back-handed compliment. He acknowledges that the scribes and Pharisees carefully conformed their lives to the ethical demands of the Torah. Where then had they come up short? 

In the context of Matthew's Gospel, righteousness is linked to Torah obedience. "Righteousness" is an ethical righteousness that is expressed by means of conformity to the Law. And from Matthew's perspective, true righteousness is restricted to the understanding of Torah advocated by Yeshua. Our righteousness cannot exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees unless we understand it in the particular manner developed by Yeshua.

 

 

QUESTIONS FOR PARASHAT VA'ERA

1. Why was the first sign Moses performed turning the water of Egypt into blood? How is this sign connected with the first miracle that Yeshua performs in Yochannan 2?

2. What does it mean for God to promise to redeem Israel from bondage in Egypt "with an outstretched arm" (Exodus 6:6)?

 

NEXT WEEK'S READINGS - PARASHAT BO'

Exodus 10:1-13:16

Jeremiah 46:13-46:28

Matthew 6:1-18

 

 
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